Free CompTIA A+ Core 2 (220-1202) Practice Test

1. Question 1 of 25Performance-based: matchDomain 1: Operating Systems

   Match each task to the Windows management console that is used to perform it.

   Choices (each may be used once, more than once, or not at all)

   • eventvwr.msc
   • diskmgmt.msc
   • devmgmt.msc
   • lusrmgr.msc
   • taskschd.msc
   • perfmon.msc
   • certmgr.msc

   Match these

   • 1.Review application and system error logs after a crash
   • 2.Initialize a new disk and create a partition on it
   • 3.Roll back a video driver that caused display problems
   • 4.Create a local user account and add it to a local group
   • 5.Run a cleanup script automatically every night at 2 a.m.
   Show answer and explanation

   • 1. Review application and system error logs after a crash → eventvwr.msc
   • 2. Initialize a new disk and create a partition on it → diskmgmt.msc
   • 3. Roll back a video driver that caused display problems → devmgmt.msc
   • 4. Create a local user account and add it to a local group → lusrmgr.msc
   • 5. Run a cleanup script automatically every night at 2 a.m. → taskschd.msc

   Event Viewer holds the logs, Disk Management handles disks and partitions, Device Manager manages drivers (including rollback), Local Users and Groups manages local accounts, and Task Scheduler runs jobs on a schedule. Performance Monitor graphs counters over time and Certificate Manager shows certificates; neither was needed here. Note that Local Users and Groups is not available in Windows Home editions.

   Objective 1.4 · CompTIA A+ 220-1202 exam objectives

2. Question 2 of 25Performance-based: matchDomain 1: Operating Systems

   Match each task to the Windows command-line tool that performs it.

   Choices (each may be used once, more than once, or not at all)

   • ipconfig /all
   • ping
   • tracert
   • nslookup
   • sfc /scannow
   • gpupdate /force
   • robocopy
   • whoami
   • netstat
   • chkdsk

   Match these

   • 1.Display the IP address, DNS servers and MAC address of every adapter
   • 2.Show each router hop between this PC and a remote host
   • 3.Query a DNS server to resolve a hostname to an IP address
   • 4.Scan and repair protected Windows system files
   • 5.Apply the latest Group Policy settings immediately
   • 6.Copy a large folder tree to a server with retries and mirroring options
   Show answer and explanation

   • 1. Display the IP address, DNS servers and MAC address of every adapter → ipconfig /all
   • 2. Show each router hop between this PC and a remote host → tracert
   • 3. Query a DNS server to resolve a hostname to an IP address → nslookup
   • 4. Scan and repair protected Windows system files → sfc /scannow
   • 5. Apply the latest Group Policy settings immediately → gpupdate /force
   • 6. Copy a large folder tree to a server with retries and mirroring options → robocopy

   ipconfig /all shows full adapter configuration, tracert lists hops, nslookup tests DNS resolution, sfc /scannow checks system file integrity, gpupdate /force refreshes Group Policy, and robocopy is the robust file-copy tool. ping tests reachability, whoami shows the current user, netstat shows connections and listening ports, and chkdsk checks a disk for errors; none of these matched an item here.

   Objective 1.5 · CompTIA A+ 220-1202 exam objectives

3. Question 3 of 25Multiple choiceDomain 1: Operating Systems

   A technician is preparing a new 4 TB drive as the boot drive for a Windows 11 installation on a UEFI system. Which partition scheme should be used?

   • A.GUID Partition Table (GPT)
   • B.Master boot record (MBR)
   • C.FAT32
   • D.Dynamic disk with spanned volume
   Show answer and explanation

   Correct answer: A

   GPT supports drives larger than 2 TB and is used with UEFI boot. MBR is limited to 2 TB volumes and four primary partitions. FAT32 is a file system, not a partition scheme, and a spanned dynamic volume does not address UEFI boot requirements.

   Objective 1.2 · CompTIA A+ 220-1202 exam objectives

4. Question 4 of 25Multiple choiceDomain 1: Operating Systems

   A user wants to join a new Windows 11 PC to the company’s Active Directory domain and use Group Policy Editor (gpedit.msc). What is the lowest edition that supports both?

   • A.Windows 11 Home
   • B.Windows 11 Home N
   • C.Windows 11 Pro
   • D.Windows 11 Home with the latest feature update
   Show answer and explanation

   Correct answer: C

   Pro adds domain join, the local Group Policy Editor, BitLocker management and Remote Desktop hosting, none of which are in Home. N editions only omit some media features. Enterprise also supports these features but is a higher edition sold through volume licensing.

   Objective 1.3 · CompTIA A+ 220-1202 exam objectives

5. Question 5 of 25Multiple choiceDomain 1: Operating Systems

   A user connects a Windows laptop to a hotel Wi-Fi network. The user wants network discovery turned off and the strictest firewall rules applied. Which network profile should be selected?

   • A.Private
   • B.Domain
   • C.Public
   • D.Metered
   Show answer and explanation

   Correct answer: C

   The Public profile is for untrusted networks: network discovery and file sharing are off and inbound rules are stricter. Private is for trusted home or work networks, and the Domain profile applies only on a domain-joined network. Metered is a data-usage setting, not a firewall profile.

   Objective 1.7 · CompTIA A+ 220-1202 exam objectives

6. Question 6 of 25Multiple choiceDomain 1: Operating Systems

   On a Linux desktop, which command shows the free and used space of each mounted filesystem?

   • A.du
   • B.ps
   • C.top
   • D.df
   Show answer and explanation

   Correct answer: D

   df reports disk space per filesystem. du estimates the space used by specific files and directories, ps lists processes, and top shows live process and resource usage.

   Objective 1.9 · CompTIA A+ 220-1202 exam objectives

7. Question 7 of 25Multiple choiceDomain 1: Operating Systems

   Which macOS feature provides full-disk encryption for the startup drive?

   • A.Time Machine
   • B.Keychain
   • C.FileVault
   • D.Spotlight
   Show answer and explanation

   Correct answer: C

   FileVault encrypts the startup disk. Time Machine is the built-in backup tool, Keychain stores passwords and certificates, and Spotlight is the search feature.

   Objective 1.8 · CompTIA A+ 220-1202 exam objectives

8. Question 8 of 25Multiple choiceDomain 2: Security

   A new help-desk employee needs to reset user passwords and nothing else. The administrator grants only that permission. Which security principle is being applied?

   • A.Principle of least privilege
   • B.Single sign-on
   • C.Data loss prevention
   • D.Just-in-time access
   Show answer and explanation

   Correct answer: A

   Least privilege means granting only the access required to do a job. Just-in-time access grants elevated rights temporarily, single sign-on lets one login reach multiple apps, and DLP prevents sensitive data from leaving the organization.

   Objective 2.1 · NIST SP 800-53 Rev. 5 (AC-6 Least Privilege)

9. Question 9 of 25Multiple choiceDomain 2: Security

   A user has Modify permission on a folder through NTFS but Read permission on the share. When the user accesses the folder across the network, what is the effective permission?

   • A.Full Control
   • B.Modify
   • C.Deny
   • D.Read
   Show answer and explanation

   Correct answer: D

   When a resource is accessed over the network, both share and NTFS permissions apply and the most restrictive result wins. Read (share) is more restrictive than Modify (NTFS), so the user can only read. If the user sat at the server console, only NTFS permissions would apply.

   Objective 2.2 · CompTIA A+ 220-1202 exam objectives

10. Question 10 of 25Select 2Domain 2: Security

    Which TWO wireless security configurations are appropriate for a modern secured office network?

    • A.WEP
    • B.WPA3
    • C.WPA2 with TKIP
    • D.WPA2 with AES
    • E.An open network with a captive portal
    Show answer and explanation

    Correct answers: B, D

    WPA3 and WPA2 with AES (CCMP) provide strong encryption. WEP is broken, TKIP is deprecated and weak, and an open network leaves traffic unencrypted regardless of any captive portal.

    Objective 2.3 · CompTIA A+ 220-1202 exam objectives
11. Question 11 of 25Multiple choiceDomain 2: Security

    Antivirus finds no malicious files on an infected workstation, yet a security tool reports that PowerShell is running encoded commands that connect to an external server. Which malware type does this best describe?

    • A.Boot sector virus
    • B.Fileless malware
    • C.Cryptominer
    • D.Stalkerware
    Show answer and explanation

    Correct answer: B

    Fileless malware runs in memory and abuses legitimate tools such as PowerShell or WMI, so it leaves few or no files for traditional signature-based antivirus to find. EDR that watches behavior is the better detection approach. A boot sector virus lives in the boot record, a cryptominer uses CPU to mine currency, and stalkerware secretly monitors a person.

    Objective 2.4 · CompTIA A+ 220-1202 exam objectives

12. Question 12 of 25Multiple choiceDomain 2: Security

    A visitor without a badge waits at a badge-controlled door and walks in behind an employee who holds it open. Which social engineering technique is this?

    • A.Shoulder surfing
    • B.Dumpster diving
    • C.Tailgating
    • D.Whaling
    Show answer and explanation

    Correct answer: C

    Tailgating is following an authorized person through a controlled entrance. Shoulder surfing is watching someone enter sensitive information, dumpster diving is searching discarded materials, and whaling is phishing aimed at senior executives. An access control vestibule and employee training reduce tailgating.

    Objective 2.5 · CompTIA A+ 220-1202 exam objectives

13. Question 13 of 25Performance-based: orderDomain 2: Security

    Put the SOHO malware removal steps in the correct order, from first to last.

    • •Disable System Restore (Windows Home)
    • •Educate the end user
    • •Enable System Restore and create a restore point (Windows Home)
    • •Investigate and verify malware symptoms
    • •Quarantine the infected system
    • •Remediate the infected system: update anti-malware, then scan and remove
    • •Schedule scans and run updates
    Show answer and explanation

    1. Investigate and verify malware symptoms
    2. Quarantine the infected system
    3. Disable System Restore (Windows Home)
    4. Remediate the infected system: update anti-malware, then scan and remove
    5. Schedule scans and run updates
    6. Enable System Restore and create a restore point (Windows Home)
    7. Educate the end user

    Confirm the problem, then isolate the machine so the malware cannot spread. System Restore is disabled because old restore points can contain the infection and would be scanned or restored along with it. After remediation, set up scheduled scans and updates, turn System Restore back on with a clean restore point, and finish by teaching the user how to avoid reinfection.

    Objective 2.6 · CompTIA A+ 220-1202 exam objectives

14. Question 14 of 25Multiple choiceDomain 2: Security

    A company is retiring old magnetic hard drives that held sensitive data and wants the data to be unrecoverable. Which method is effective only against magnetic media and would NOT work on SSDs?

    • A.Degaussing
    • B.Shredding
    • C.Incineration
    • D.Standard format
    Show answer and explanation

    Correct answer: A

    Degaussing uses a strong magnetic field to destroy data on magnetic media, so it has no effect on flash storage in SSDs. Thorough shredding and incineration destroy any type of drive. A standard format only rebuilds the file system and does not reliably destroy data. A certificate of destruction from the vendor documents the disposal.

    Objective 2.9 · NIST SP 800-88 Rev. 2 Guidelines for Media Sanitization

15. Question 15 of 25Multiple choiceDomain 3: Software Troubleshooting

    Immediately after a new network adapter driver is installed, a Windows PC crashes with a blue screen on every boot. What should the technician do first?

    • A.Reinstall Windows
    • B.Replace the motherboard
    • C.Run a disk defragmentation
    • D.Boot into Safe Mode and roll back or uninstall the new driver
    Show answer and explanation

    Correct answer: D

    A crash that starts right after a driver change points to that driver. Safe Mode loads minimal drivers so the technician can roll back or remove the faulty one. Reinstalling Windows or replacing hardware is far more disruptive and should only follow if simpler steps fail.

    Objective 3.1 · CompTIA A+ 220-1202 exam objectives

16. Question 16 of 25Multiple choiceDomain 3: Software Troubleshooting

    A desktop shows "Operating system not found" right after a technician inserted a USB flash drive and restarted it. What should be done first?

    • A.Run diskpart and clean the system drive
    • B.Remove the USB drive and verify the boot order in UEFI
    • C.Replace the CMOS battery
    • D.Format the system drive
    Show answer and explanation

    Correct answer: B

    If the firmware tries to boot from a non-bootable USB device first, it reports no OS. Removing the drive and confirming the system drive is first in the boot order is quick and non-destructive. Cleaning or formatting the drive would destroy data and is not justified yet.

    Objective 3.1 · CompTIA A+ 220-1202 exam objectives

17. Question 17 of 25Multiple choiceDomain 3: Software Troubleshooting

    A mobile app crashes as soon as it launches, while other apps work normally. Which action is the least invasive first step?

    • A.Factory reset the device
    • B.Replace the phone
    • C.Force-close the app, then restart the device and relaunch it
    • D.Reflash the operating system
    Show answer and explanation

    Correct answer: C

    Start with the simplest fix that does not risk data: close the app and restart the device. If the problem remains, check for app or OS updates, clear the app’s cache, or reinstall the app. A factory reset or reflash is a last resort.

    Objective 3.2 · CompTIA A+ 220-1202 exam objectives

18. Question 18 of 25Multiple choiceDomain 3: Software Troubleshooting

    A phone suddenly shows heavy data usage and fast battery drain, and the user reports installing an app from a website instead of the official store. What is the most likely cause?

    • A.Malware from a sideloaded app
    • B.A swollen battery
    • C.A cracked digitizer
    • D.An outdated SIM card
    Show answer and explanation

    Correct answer: A

    Unusual background data and battery use after sideloading an app from an untrusted source suggests malicious software. The technician should remove the app, run mobile anti-malware and review permissions. A swollen battery and a cracked digitizer produce physical symptoms, and a SIM card does not cause these combined symptoms.

    Objective 3.3 · CompTIA A+ 220-1202 exam objectives

19. Question 19 of 25Multiple choiceDomain 3: Software Troubleshooting

    Several of a user’s contacts report receiving emails the user never sent, and the messages appear in the user’s Sent folder. What should the technician recommend first?

    • A.Delete the user’s contacts
    • B.Disable the spam filter
    • C.Ask the contacts to block the user
    • D.Reset the account password, sign out all sessions, and enable multifactor authentication
    Show answer and explanation

    Correct answer: D

    Messages the user did not send suggest the account has been compromised. Resetting the password, revoking active sessions and enabling MFA removes the attacker’s access. The user’s device should also be scanned for malware. The other options do not address the compromise.

    Objective 3.4 · CompTIA A+ 220-1202 exam objectives

20. Question 20 of 25Multiple choiceDomain 3: Software Troubleshooting

    A Windows PC slows down a little more each day. Task Manager shows that one application’s memory use climbs steadily until the PC is restarted. What does this most likely indicate?

    • A.A failing hard drive
    • B.A memory leak in the application
    • C.A dead CMOS battery
    • D.A boot sector virus
    Show answer and explanation

    Correct answer: B

    A process that keeps consuming more memory over time without releasing it is a memory leak. Updating or reinstalling the application, or restarting it on a schedule, are typical responses. Drive failures, CMOS battery problems and boot sector viruses do not produce this single-process memory growth.

    Objective 3.1 · CompTIA A+ 220-1202 exam objectives
21. Question 21 of 25Multiple choiceDomain 4: Operational Procedures

    A change request is being prepared for a server update. Which part of the request describes how to return the system to its previous state if the update fails?

    • A.Risk analysis
    • B.Scope of the change
    • C.Rollback plan
    • D.End-user acceptance
    Show answer and explanation

    Correct answer: C

    The rollback (backout) plan documents the steps to undo a change that fails. Risk analysis evaluates what could go wrong, scope defines what is affected, and end-user acceptance confirms the change meets requirements after deployment.

    Objective 4.2 · CompTIA A+ 220-1202 exam objectives

22. Question 22 of 25Multiple choiceDomain 4: Operational Procedures

    A backup job copies only the files that have changed since the last FULL backup, and each run grows larger until the next full backup. Which backup type is this?

    • A.Differential
    • B.Incremental
    • C.Full
    • D.Synthetic full
    Show answer and explanation

    Correct answer: A

    A differential backup copies everything changed since the last full backup, so it grows over time but needs only the last full plus the latest differential to restore. An incremental backup copies only changes since the last backup of any type, which is smaller but needs the full backup plus every incremental to restore.

    Objective 4.3 · CompTIA A+ 220-1202 exam objectives

23. Question 23 of 25Multiple choiceDomain 4: Operational Procedures

    Which item protects computer components from electrostatic discharge (ESD) while a technician works inside a PC?

    • A.Rubber-soled shoes alone
    • B.Compressed air
    • C.A carpeted work area
    • D.An antistatic wrist strap connected to a grounded point
    Show answer and explanation

    Correct answer: D

    An antistatic wrist strap equalizes the electrical potential between the technician and the equipment by connecting to a ground point such as the chassis or an ESD mat. Carpet generates static, and compressed air does not discharge it. Do not wear a wrist strap when working inside a power supply or CRT because of the shock risk.

    Objective 4.4 · CompTIA A+ 220-1202 exam objectives

24. Question 24 of 25Multiple choiceDomain 4: Operational Procedures

    Which file extension identifies a PowerShell script?

    • A..bat
    • B..ps1
    • C..sh
    • D..py
    Show answer and explanation

    Correct answer: B

    .ps1 is PowerShell. .bat is a Windows batch file, .sh is a shell script for Linux and macOS, and .py is a Python script.

    Objective 4.8 · CompTIA A+ 220-1202 exam objectives

25. Question 25 of 25Multiple choiceDomain 4: Operational Procedures

    A technician needs encrypted command-line access to administer a remote Linux server. Which remote access technology should be used?

    • A.Telnet
    • B.Remote Desktop Protocol to the server’s Windows console
    • C.SSH
    • D.An unencrypted VNC session
    Show answer and explanation

    Correct answer: C

    Secure Shell (SSH) provides encrypted remote command-line access and is the standard way to administer Linux servers. Telnet sends everything, including passwords, in clear text, and an unencrypted VNC session is similarly exposed. RDP is the Windows graphical remote desktop protocol.

    Objective 4.9 · IETF RFC 4251 (SSH Protocol Architecture)

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