Free CompTIA A+ Core 1 (220-1201) Practice Test

1. Question 1 of 25Multiple choiceDomain 1: Mobile Devices

   A company lets employees use their personal phones for work email (BYOD). IT needs to enforce a passcode, push the corporate mail app and be able to remove only company data if a phone is lost. What should IT do?

   • A.Enable tethering on each phone
   • B.Enroll the phones in a mobile device management (MDM) solution
   • C.Pair each phone with the office PC over Bluetooth
   • D.Turn on NFC on the phones
   Show answer and explanation

   Correct answer: B

   MDM enforces policy (passcodes, encryption), distributes corporate apps and can selectively wipe corporate data on enrolled devices, which suits BYOD. Tethering, Bluetooth pairing and NFC are connectivity features and enforce no policy.

   Objective 1.3 · CompTIA A+ 220-1201 exam objectives

2. Question 2 of 25Multiple choiceDomain 1: Mobile Devices

   A traveler has no Wi-Fi at a hotel and wants a laptop to use the phone’s cellular data connection through a USB cable. Which feature should be enabled on the phone?

   • A.Tethering
   • B.NFC pairing
   • C.Airplane mode
   • D.MDM synchronization
   Show answer and explanation

   Correct answer: A

   Tethering shares a phone’s cellular connection with another device over USB, Bluetooth or Wi-Fi (hotspot). NFC works only at a few centimeters and is not used for internet sharing, and airplane mode turns the radios off while MDM does not share a data connection.

   Objective 1.2 · CompTIA A+ 220-1201 exam objectives

3. Question 3 of 25Multiple choiceDomain 1: Mobile Devices

   A user’s mobile plan has a small monthly data cap. Which configuration best avoids overage charges while still keeping mail and cloud files synchronized?

   • A.Enable the mobile hotspot
   • B.Disable Wi-Fi so the phone stays on cellular
   • C.Allow background sync over cellular for the apps
   • D.Limit background sync and large downloads to Wi-Fi only
   Show answer and explanation

   Correct answer: D

   Restricting background sync and large transfers to Wi-Fi keeps data usage off the cellular plan while still syncing whenever the phone is on a Wi-Fi network. The other choices increase cellular usage.

   Objective 1.3 · CompTIA A+ 220-1201 exam objectives

4. Question 4 of 25Performance-based: matchDomain 2: Networking

   Match each service to its default port number.

   Choices (each may be used once, more than once, or not at all)

   • 22
   • 25
   • 53
   • 80
   • 143
   • 389
   • 443
   • 3389

   Match these

   • 1.Secure Shell (SSH) remote administration
   • 2.SMTP, used to send email between mail servers
   • 3.DNS name resolution
   • 4.IMAP, retrieving mail while leaving it on the server
   • 5.LDAP directory queries (unencrypted)
   • 6.Remote Desktop Protocol (RDP)
   Show answer and explanation

   • 1. Secure Shell (SSH) remote administration → 22
   • 2. SMTP, used to send email between mail servers → 25
   • 3. DNS name resolution → 53
   • 4. IMAP, retrieving mail while leaving it on the server → 143
   • 5. LDAP directory queries (unencrypted) → 389
   • 6. Remote Desktop Protocol (RDP) → 3389

   These are well-known ports from the exam objectives: SSH 22, SMTP 25, DNS 53, IMAP 143, LDAP 389 and RDP 3389. HTTP (80) and HTTPS (443) were not used in this exercise. Remember that POP3 uses 110 and Telnet uses 23.

   Objective 2.1 · CompTIA A+ 220-1201 exam objectives

5. Question 5 of 25Multiple choiceDomain 2: Networking

   Which Wi-Fi frequency band generally offers the longest range through walls but is the most prone to interference from microwave ovens, Bluetooth devices and cordless phones?

   • A.NFC
   • B.5 GHz
   • C.2.4 GHz
   • D.6 GHz
   Show answer and explanation

   Correct answer: C

   Lower frequencies penetrate obstacles better, so 2.4 GHz has the best range, but it has few non-overlapping channels and shares spectrum with many household devices. 5 GHz and 6 GHz offer more channels and speed over shorter distances. NFC is a short-range technology, not a Wi-Fi band.

   Objective 2.2 · CompTIA A+ 220-1201 exam objectives

6. Question 6 of 25Multiple choiceDomain 2: Networking

   An administrator needs to publish a Sender Policy Framework (SPF) policy so receiving mail servers can verify which hosts may send mail for the company domain. Which DNS record type holds this information?

   • A.A
   • B.CNAME
   • C.MX
   • D.TXT
   Show answer and explanation

   Correct answer: D

   SPF, DKIM and DMARC policies are published as TXT records. An A record maps a name to an IPv4 address, a CNAME aliases one name to another, and an MX record tells senders which servers receive mail for the domain.

   Objective 2.4 · IETF RFC 7208 (SPF)

7. Question 7 of 25Multiple choiceDomain 2: Networking

   A network printer must always receive the same IP address, 192.168.1.50, but the office still uses DHCP for everything else. What should the technician configure?

   • A.A longer lease time for the whole scope
   • B.A DHCP reservation tied to the printer’s MAC address
   • C.An exclusion for 192.168.1.50, with the printer left on DHCP
   • D.An APIPA address on the printer
   Show answer and explanation

   Correct answer: B

   A reservation makes the DHCP server hand the same address to a specific MAC every time. An exclusion only removes addresses from the pool, so it is used for devices configured statically. A longer lease does not guarantee the same address, and APIPA addresses (169.254.x.x) are self-assigned only when no DHCP server answers.

   Objective 2.4 · IETF RFC 2131 (DHCP)

8. Question 8 of 25Multiple choiceDomain 2: Networking

   A Windows PC on the office network shows the IPv4 address 169.254.37.12. What does this indicate?

   • A.The PC could not reach a DHCP server and assigned itself an APIPA address
   • B.The PC received a public IP address from the ISP
   • C.The PC is connected through a VPN
   • D.The PC has a valid DHCP reservation
   Show answer and explanation

   Correct answer: A

   Addresses in 169.254.0.0/16 are link-local (APIPA) addresses that Windows assigns when it gets no DHCP response. The PC can talk only to other local hosts on the same segment, so the technician should check the cable or Wi-Fi link and the DHCP service.

   Objective 2.6 · IETF RFC 3927 (Link-Local IPv4 addresses)

9. Question 9 of 25Multiple choiceDomain 2: Networking

   A technician must locate the far end of an unlabeled network cable that runs through a wall to a patch panel. Which tool is designed for this?

   • A.Cable tester
   • B.Loopback plug
   • C.Toner generator and probe
   • D.Crimper
   Show answer and explanation

   Correct answer: C

   A toner generator sends a tone down the cable and the probe picks it up at the other end, which identifies the right cable. A cable tester checks continuity and wiring, a loopback plug tests a port, and a crimper attaches connectors.

   Objective 2.8 · CompTIA A+ 220-1201 exam objectives

10. Question 10 of 25Multiple choiceDomain 3: Hardware

    A company needs to link two buildings 5 kilometers apart with fiber. Which cable type should the technician choose?

    • A.Single-mode fiber
    • B.Multimode fiber
    • C.Coaxial
    • D.Shielded twisted pair
    Show answer and explanation

    Correct answer: A

    Single-mode fiber has a very small core and a laser light source, so it carries signals over many kilometers. Multimode fiber is used for shorter runs inside buildings and campuses, while coaxial and shielded twisted pair are copper and are limited to much shorter distances.

    Objective 3.2 · CompTIA A+ 220-1201 exam objectives
11. Question 11 of 25Multiple choiceDomain 3: Hardware

    A server must use memory that can detect and correct single-bit errors to avoid silent data corruption. Which RAM type should be installed?

    • A.Non-ECC DIMM
    • B.ECC RAM
    • C.SODIMM
    • D.A dual-channel kit
    Show answer and explanation

    Correct answer: B

    Error-correcting code (ECC) memory adds extra bits that let the controller detect and correct single-bit errors. SODIMM describes a smaller laptop form factor, and a dual-channel kit affects bandwidth, not error handling.

    Objective 3.3 · CompTIA A+ 220-1201 exam objectives

12. Question 12 of 25Performance-based: matchDomain 3: Hardware

    Match each description to the RAID level it describes.

    Choices (each may be used once, more than once, or not at all)

    • RAID 0
    • RAID 1
    • RAID 5
    • RAID 6
    • RAID 10

    Match these

    • 1.Striping only: the best performance, but the failure of any one drive loses the array
    • 2.Two drives hold identical copies of the data
    • 3.Striping with distributed single parity; minimum of three drives; survives one drive failure
    • 4.Striping with dual parity; minimum of four drives; survives two drive failures
    • 5.Mirrored pairs that are then striped; minimum of four drives
    Show answer and explanation

    • 1. Striping only: the best performance, but the failure of any one drive loses the array → RAID 0
    • 2. Two drives hold identical copies of the data → RAID 1
    • 3. Striping with distributed single parity; minimum of three drives; survives one drive failure → RAID 5
    • 4. Striping with dual parity; minimum of four drives; survives two drive failures → RAID 6
    • 5. Mirrored pairs that are then striped; minimum of four drives → RAID 10

    RAID 0 offers no redundancy. RAID 1 mirrors, RAID 5 uses one drive’s worth of parity, RAID 6 uses two, and RAID 10 (1+0) stripes across mirrored pairs for both speed and redundancy at the cost of capacity. RAID is not a backup: it does not protect against deletion or corruption.

    Objective 3.4 · CompTIA A+ 220-1201 exam objectives

13. Question 13 of 25Multiple choiceDomain 3: Hardware

    Which UEFI setting helps prevent unsigned or tampered bootloaders and boot-level malware from running when the computer starts?

    • A.Boot password
    • B.Boot order
    • C.Virtualization support
    • D.Secure Boot
    Show answer and explanation

    Correct answer: D

    Secure Boot checks digital signatures on the bootloader and OS components against trusted keys before they run. A boot password only gates who can start the machine, boot order chooses the device, and virtualization support enables hypervisor features.

    Objective 3.5 · CompTIA A+ 220-1201 exam objectives

14. Question 14 of 25Multiple choiceDomain 3: Hardware

    A small business server must keep running if one of its power supplies fails. Which power supply feature provides this?

    • A.A modular power supply
    • B.A higher wattage rating
    • C.A redundant power supply
    • D.A 20+4 pin motherboard connector
    Show answer and explanation

    Correct answer: C

    Redundant power supplies share the load, and the remaining unit carries it if the other fails, usually with hot-swap replacement. Modular supplies only let you detach unused cables, wattage sets capacity, and the 20+4 pin connector is the standard motherboard power plug.

    Objective 3.6 · CompTIA A+ 220-1201 exam objectives

15. Question 15 of 25Performance-based: orderDomain 3: Hardware

    Arrange the wire colors in the T568B standard order, from pin 1 to pin 8.

    • •Blue
    • •Brown
    • •Green
    • •Orange
    • •White/blue
    • •White/brown
    • •White/green
    • •White/orange
    Show answer and explanation

    1. White/orange
    2. Orange
    3. White/green
    4. Blue
    5. White/blue
    6. Green
    7. White/brown
    8. Brown

    T568B order is white/orange, orange, white/green, blue, white/blue, green, white/brown, brown. T568A swaps the orange and green pairs. A straight-through cable uses the same standard on both ends, and a crossover uses T568A on one end and T568B on the other.

    Objective 3.2 · CompTIA A+ 220-1201 exam objectives

16. Question 16 of 25Multiple choiceDomain 4: Virtualization and Cloud Computing

    A data center installs a hypervisor directly on the server hardware, with no host operating system underneath, and runs several virtual machines on it. Which hypervisor type is this?

    • A.Type 1
    • B.Type 2
    • C.Container engine
    • D.Virtual desktop infrastructure
    Show answer and explanation

    Correct answer: A

    A Type 1 (bare-metal) hypervisor runs directly on the hardware and is the usual choice for servers. A Type 2 hypervisor is an application running on a host OS, such as on a technician’s laptop. Containers share the host kernel instead of virtualizing hardware, and VDI delivers desktops to users.

    Objective 4.1 · CompTIA A+ 220-1201 exam objectives

17. Question 17 of 25Multiple choiceDomain 4: Virtualization and Cloud Computing

    A company rents virtual servers and storage from a provider but installs and manages the operating systems and applications itself. Which cloud service model is this?

    • A.SaaS
    • B.PaaS
    • C.IaaS
    • D.Community cloud
    Show answer and explanation

    Correct answer: C

    Infrastructure as a service gives the customer virtual machines, storage and networking, while the customer manages everything from the OS upward. Under PaaS the provider also manages the OS and runtime, and SaaS delivers a finished application. Community cloud describes shared ownership among organizations with common needs, not a service model.

    Objective 4.2 · CompTIA A+ 220-1201 exam objectives

18. Question 18 of 25Multiple choiceDomain 4: Virtualization and Cloud Computing

    An online store’s cloud service automatically adds servers during a holiday traffic spike and removes them afterward. Which cloud characteristic does this describe?

    • A.Multitenancy
    • B.Elasticity
    • C.File synchronization
    • D.Metered utilization
    Show answer and explanation

    Correct answer: B

    Elasticity is the ability to scale resources up and down automatically as demand changes. Multitenancy means multiple customers share the same infrastructure, and metered utilization is billing by consumption, which may result from scaling but is not the scaling itself.

    Objective 4.2 · CompTIA A+ 220-1201 exam objectives

19. Question 19 of 25Select 2Domain 5: Hardware and Network Troubleshooting

    A desktop shuts down randomly under heavy load and the CPU temperature reads over 95°C. Select the TWO most likely causes.

    • A.A heat sink clogged with dust
    • B.A failing CMOS battery
    • C.Dried-out or missing thermal paste
    • D.An outdated printer driver
    • E.A low monitor refresh rate
    Show answer and explanation

    Correct answers: A, C

    Overheating that causes random shutdowns points to poor heat transfer: dust blocking airflow through the heat sink and old or absent thermal paste between the CPU and cooler. A failing CMOS battery causes date/time errors and lost BIOS settings, not thermal shutdowns, and printer drivers and refresh rate are unrelated.

    Objective 5.1 · CompTIA A+ 220-1201 exam objectives

20. Question 20 of 25Multiple choiceDomain 5: Hardware and Network Troubleshooting

    A workstation’s hard drive makes repeated clicking sounds, and the S.M.A.R.T. status reports a predictive failure. What is the best next step?

    • A.Defragment the drive
    • B.Run Disk Cleanup
    • C.Reformat the drive and continue using it
    • D.Back up the data immediately, then replace the drive
    Show answer and explanation

    Correct answer: D

    Clicking and a S.M.A.R.T. predictive failure indicate imminent mechanical failure. Protect the data first, then replace the drive. Defragmenting and heavy disk activity can accelerate failure, and reformatting does not repair a failing mechanism.

    Objective 5.2 · CompTIA A+ 220-1201 exam objectives
21. Question 21 of 25Multiple choiceDomain 5: Hardware and Network Troubleshooting

    A conference-room projector powers on and its fan runs, but the screen shows "No Signal" when a laptop is connected. What should the technician check first?

    • A.Replace the projector bulb
    • B.Verify the correct input source is selected and the cable is firmly connected
    • C.Clean the projector lens
    • D.Update the projector firmware
    Show answer and explanation

    Correct answer: B

    A "No Signal" message with a working lamp and fan most often means the wrong input source is selected or the cable is loose or faulty. Start with the simplest, most likely causes before replacing parts. A failed bulb produces a dark or very dim image, and a dirty lens produces a fuzzy one.

    Objective 5.3 · CompTIA A+ 220-1201 exam objectives

22. Question 22 of 25Multiple choiceDomain 5: Hardware and Network Troubleshooting

    A smartphone’s screen is lifting away from its frame and the back cover bulges. The phone feels slightly warm even when idle. What is the correct action?

    • A.Charge it fully to reset the battery
    • B.Press the screen down to flatten it
    • C.Power it off, stop charging it, and have the swollen battery replaced and recycled safely
    • D.Place it in the freezer overnight
    Show answer and explanation

    Correct answer: C

    A swollen lithium-ion battery is a fire and chemical hazard. Stop using and charging the device, power it off, avoid puncturing or pressing on it, and have the battery replaced by a qualified technician and disposed of through proper recycling. Charging, pressing or freezing it increases the risk.

    Objective 5.4 · CompTIA A+ 220-1201 exam objectives

23. Question 23 of 25Multiple choiceDomain 5: Hardware and Network Troubleshooting

    Staff report choppy, robotic-sounding VoIP calls even though speed tests show plenty of bandwidth. Which measurement describes the variation in packet arrival times that causes this symptom?

    • A.Jitter
    • B.Bandwidth
    • C.Attenuation
    • D.Latency
    Show answer and explanation

    Correct answer: A

    Jitter is the variation in delay between packets. Voice traffic needs packets to arrive at steady intervals, so high jitter breaks up audio even when total bandwidth is fine. Latency is the overall delay, bandwidth is capacity, and attenuation is signal loss over distance.

    Objective 5.5 · CompTIA A+ 220-1201 exam objectives

24. Question 24 of 25Multiple choiceDomain 5: Hardware and Network Troubleshooting

    Every page from a laser printer has a thin black vertical line running down it, and the line appears in the same place each time. What should the technician try first?

    • A.Reinstall the printer driver
    • B.Replace the paper with a different brand
    • C.Clear the print queue
    • D.Clean or replace the toner cartridge or drum unit
    Show answer and explanation

    Correct answer: D

    A line in the same position on every page is a physical defect in the print path, most often a damaged or dirty drum or a faulty toner cartridge. Driver, queue and paper problems cause garbled output, stuck jobs or feed errors rather than a consistent line.

    Objective 5.6 · CompTIA A+ 220-1201 exam objectives

25. Question 25 of 25Multiple choiceDomain 5: Hardware and Network Troubleshooting

    Several documents show as pending in a shared printer’s queue, and new jobs never print. The printer itself is online with no errors. What is the best fix?

    • A.Replace the toner cartridge
    • B.Clear the print queue and restart the Print Spooler service
    • C.Reinstall the operating system
    • D.Replace the fuser assembly
    Show answer and explanation

    Correct answer: B

    A frozen print queue is usually caused by a stuck job or a hung Print Spooler service on the computer or print server. Stopping the spooler, clearing the queue and restarting the service restores printing. The toner, fuser and OS are not involved when the printer reports no errors.

    Objective 5.6 · CompTIA A+ 220-1201 exam objectives

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